

Previous
Next
Index
Thread
Re: Telepathy/Parapsychology etc. and Meta-Analysis

-
To: Public Netbase NewsAgent
-
Subject: Re: Telepathy/Parapsychology etc. and Meta-Analysis
-
From: Chris Lawson <claw@ozemail.com.au>
-
Date: Sun, 30 Jun 1996 16:37:45 -0700 (PDT)
-
Article: rec.arts.sf.science.27834
-
Score: 100

Stewart Robert Hinsley wrote:
>
> In article <31D2F779.2A45@ariel.its.unimelb.edu.au>
> damien@ariel.its.unimelb.edu.au "Damien Broderick" writes:
>
> > Chris Lawson wrote:
> >
> > > Meta-analysis, IMHO, doesn't count. [...] This is a bit like
> > > finding 3 inadequate samples of mince meat, and mixing all 3 in the mincer
> > > again.
> >
> > Inadequate for what purposes? You imply `tainted', but parapsychologists
> > have tried (under the whip of their opponents, such as Hyman) to rid their
> > data bases of contaminated data. Are you really trying to tell us that
> > adding 10 smallish samples together will not bring down the standard
> > deviation, proportionately, to the point where an otherwise tenuous effect
> > rises up over the noise level? As you admit, pharmacologists use this
> > procedure all the time. It's not as compelling as levitating on to the White
> > House lawn (and being shot out of the sky), but gimme a break here...
> > Meta-analysis is acceptable in other fields. Only an a priori conviction
> > that psi is crap would make one *more* worried about its use in parapsych.
> >
> I'm fairly sure I've seen negative views of meta-analysis outside the
> context of parapsychology. AFAIK, the problem is that meta-analysis can
> introduce biases.
>
> If one does enough experiments one will eventually get one with a result
> a few standard deviations ought. Combining this with the rarity of the
> publication of null results gives rise to a bias.
>
> For example, consider a system in which there is no correlation between
> a postulated cause and effect. Say 100 experiments are done, of which 80
> give a null result, 10 give a borderline positive correlation, and 10
> a borderline negative correlation. Say that of these 1/4 (20) of those
> giving a null result, 1/2 (5) of those giving a negative correlation, and
> all (1) of those giving a positive correlation, are published. In this
> circumstance meta-analysis clearly gives rise to a misleading conclusion.
>
> Another problem with meta-analysis is how to decide how to weigh the
> various data sets. Giving them equal weightings is wrong. If the
> experiments have no systematic errors then weighing them according the
> sizes and standard deviations of the data sets is appropriate. (Someone
> more statistically sophisticated then I am could provide you with the
> equations.) It is not obvious to me that it is always possible to
> produce objective weightings of the results of disparate parapsychological
> experiments; but, if the meta-analyst unconsciously gives greater weight
> to the positive results this skews the result of the meta-analysis.
>
> --
> Stewart Robert Hinsley The adequate is the enemy of the good.
>
> stewart@meden.demon.co.uk
Thank you, Stewart!
You have put it succinctly. Damien Broderick said I "admit" that meta-analysis is used
in fields such as pharmacology. As I clearly pointed out in the original, I am
suspicious of meta-analysis in ANY field. Occasionally such studies are useful, but the
vast majority show a small effect with marginal statistical signifance, and therefore
tell us no more than that a PROPER study with a larger sample size is needed to assess
the hypothesis.
I read a lot of medical data in my work, and the meta-analyses are weighted IMHO one



